Lighthouse Prep · Current Affairs

Daily Current Affairs 6 June 2026

Daily current affairs for 6 June 2026 — 22 verified news items across Miscellaneous, Sports, Science & Tech & more, with exam-angle notes, keywords and…

Published 6 June 2026 · current affairs · daily digest · miscellaneous · sports · science & tech · environment

Miscellaneous

Study in Vellore Highlights Rising Thinness and Overweight in Children

A recent study conducted in Vellore found that the prevalence of thinness and overweight among children began to rise sharply between the ages of seven and nine. This indicates a double burden of malnutrition in India, encompassing both undernutrition and overnutrition. The study emphasizes the need to rethink public health programmes that have been primarily designed to combat undernutrition, to effectively address the evolving forms of malnutrition.

Exam angle Focus on the double burden of malnutrition and the age group where thinness and overweight rise sharply in India.
Velloremalnutritionthinnessoverweightundernutritionpublic health programmesIndia

Source The Hindu

Practice MCQs

Q1 According to the recent study in Vellore, at what ages does the prevalence of thinness and overweight begin to rise sharply?

  • ABetween ages 3 and 5
  • BBetween ages 7 and 9Correct
  • CBetween ages 10 and 12
  • DBetween ages 13 and 15

Explanation The study found that the prevalence of thinness and overweight began to rise sharply between ages seven and nine.

Q2 What major concern regarding malnutrition does the Vellore study highlight?

  • AOnly undernutrition is a concern in India
  • BOnly overweight is increasing in India
  • CDouble burden of malnutrition including both undernutrition and overnutritionCorrect
  • DMalnutrition is no longer a public health issue

Explanation The study highlights the double burden of malnutrition, which includes both undernutrition and overnutrition, as a cause of concern in India.

Q3 What implication does the Vellore study suggest for public health programmes in India?

  • AProgrammes should focus only on undernutrition
  • BProgrammes should focus only on overnutrition
  • CProgrammes designed primarily to combat undernutrition need to be re-thoughtCorrect
  • DNo changes are needed in current programmes

Explanation The study suggests that programmes designed primarily to combat undernutrition need to be re-thought to address the evolving forms of malnutrition.

Sports

Shreyas Iyer Named New Captain of India T20I Cricket Team

Shreyas Iyer has been appointed as the new captain of the Indian T20 International cricket team, replacing Suryakumar Yadav. The decision was finalized in a selection meeting ahead of the upcoming series against England and Ireland. Tilak Varma has been named as the deputy captain, and pacer Prince Yadav, noted for his strong performance with the Lucknow Super Giants, has been included in the squad. Former cricketer Ajit Agarkar described Iyer as a well-deserving choice for the captaincy.

Exam angle Questions may focus on recent leadership changes in the Indian T20 cricket team and key players included in the squad.
Shreyas IyerSuryakumar YadavTilak VarmaPrince YadavAjit AgarkarIndia T20I teamLucknow Super Giants

Source The Hindu

Practice MCQs

Q1 Who has been named the new captain of the Indian T20 International cricket team in 2026?

  • ASuryakumar Yadav
  • BShreyas IyerCorrect
  • CTilak Varma
  • DPrince Yadav

Explanation Shreyas Iyer was appointed as the new captain of the Indian T20I team, replacing Suryakumar Yadav.

Q2 Who is the deputy captain of the Indian T20I team under Shreyas Iyer's captaincy?

  • APrince Yadav
  • BAjit Agarkar
  • CTilak VarmaCorrect
  • DSuryakumar Yadav

Explanation Tilak Varma was named as the deputy captain alongside Shreyas Iyer.

Q3 Which pacer was included in the Indian T20I squad for the England and Ireland series following the captaincy change?

  • APrince YadavCorrect
  • BAjit Agarkar
  • CTilak Varma
  • DSuryakumar Yadav

Explanation Prince Yadav, known for his performance with Lucknow Super Giants, was drafted into the squad.

Yashasvi Jaiswal replaces injured Virat Kohli for Afghanistan ODI series

Virat Kohli has been ruled out of the upcoming three-match ODI series against Afghanistan due to injury. Yashasvi Jaiswal has been named as his replacement in the Indian cricket team. The series will be played across three venues: Dharamsala on June 13, Lucknow on June 17, and Chennai on June 20, 2026.

Exam angle Questions may focus on player replacements and schedule details of the India-Afghanistan ODI series in 2026.
Virat KohliYashasvi JaiswalAfghanistan ODI seriesDharamsalaLucknowChennai

Source The Hindu

Practice MCQs

Q1 Who replaced Virat Kohli in the Indian team for the Afghanistan ODI series in 2026?

  • AYashasvi JaiswalCorrect
  • BRohit Sharma
  • CKL Rahul
  • DShubman Gill

Explanation Yashasvi Jaiswal was named as the replacement for the injured Virat Kohli for the Afghanistan ODI series.

Q2 Which of the following cities is NOT a venue for the 2026 India-Afghanistan ODI series?

  • ADharamsala
  • BLucknow
  • CChennai
  • DMumbaiCorrect

Explanation The three ODIs are scheduled in Dharamsala, Lucknow, and Chennai; Mumbai is not a venue.

Q3 On what date is the first ODI between India and Afghanistan scheduled in 2026?

  • AJune 13Correct
  • BJune 17
  • CJune 20
  • DJune 25

Explanation The first ODI is scheduled to be played at Dharamsala on June 13, 2026.

R Praggnanandhaa Wins Norway Chess Title on Magnus Carlsen's Home Turf

R Praggnanandhaa achieved a historic victory by winning the Norway Chess title, held on Magnus Carlsen's home turf. This win is considered by Praggnanandhaa to be more special than even defeating Magnus Carlsen himself. The victory was widely celebrated, with fans swarming him for autographs and pictures, marking a significant milestone in his chess career.

Exam angle Questions may focus on Praggnanandhaa's achievement in winning the Norway Chess title and its significance.
R PraggnanandhaaNorway ChessMagnus Carlsenchesstitlefans

Source The Hindu

Practice MCQs

Q1 What significant achievement did R Praggnanandhaa accomplish at Norway Chess?

  • AWon the Norway Chess title on Magnus Carlsen's home turfCorrect
  • BDefeated Magnus Carlsen in a friendly match
  • CHosted the Norway Chess tournament
  • DBecame the youngest grandmaster in Norway

Explanation R Praggnanandhaa won the Norway Chess title, which was held on Magnus Carlsen's home turf.

Q2 How did Praggnanandhaa describe his Norway Chess title win compared to beating Magnus Carlsen?

  • ALess special than beating Magnus Carlsen
  • BEqually special as beating Magnus Carlsen
  • CMore special than beating Magnus CarlsenCorrect
  • DNot related to Magnus Carlsen

Explanation Praggnanandhaa said winning the Norway Chess title was 'more special' than beating Magnus Carlsen.

Q3 What was the public reaction to Praggnanandhaa's victory at Norway Chess?

  • AHe was ignored by fans
  • BHe was swarmed by fans for autographs and picturesCorrect
  • CHe faced criticism from the chess community
  • DThere was no public reaction

Explanation After his victory, Praggnanandhaa was swarmed by fans who wanted autographs and pictures.

FIFA World Cup 2026 Group Squads Announced for Groups C, E, and F

The full player lists for Groups C, E, and F of the FIFA World Cup 2026 have been announced. Group C includes Brazil, Morocco, Scotland, and Haiti. Group E features Germany, Curacao, Cote d'Ivoire, and Ecuador. Group F consists of the Netherlands, Japan, Sweden, and Tunisia. The tournament will be held across the USA, Mexico, and Canada.

Exam angle Questions may focus on the composition of groups and participating teams in FIFA World Cup 2026.
FIFA World Cup 2026Group CGroup EGroup FBrazilGermanyNetherlandsUSA

Source The Hindu

Practice MCQs

Q1 Which teams are part of Group C in the FIFA World Cup 2026?

  • ABrazil, Morocco, Scotland, HaitiCorrect
  • BGermany, Curacao, Cote d'Ivoire, Ecuador
  • CNetherlands, Japan, Sweden, Tunisia
  • DUSA, Mexico, Canada, Brazil

Explanation Group C includes Brazil, Morocco, Scotland, and Haiti as per the announced squads.

Q2 Which countries are hosting the FIFA World Cup 2026?

  • AUSA, Mexico, and CanadaCorrect
  • BBrazil, Germany, and Netherlands
  • CJapan, Sweden, and Tunisia
  • DScotland, Haiti, and Curacao

Explanation The FIFA World Cup 2026 will be held in the USA, Mexico, and Canada.

Q3 Which teams are in Group F for the FIFA World Cup 2026?

  • ANetherlands, Japan, Sweden, TunisiaCorrect
  • BBrazil, Morocco, Scotland, Haiti
  • CGermany, Curacao, Cote d'Ivoire, Ecuador
  • DUSA, Mexico, Canada, Brazil

Explanation Group F consists of the Netherlands, Japan, Sweden, and Tunisia.

Praggnanandhaa clinches Norway Chess 2026 title with final round win

In the Norway Chess 2026 tournament, Indian grandmaster Praggnanandhaa showcased remarkable resilience by defeating Gukesh and overcoming the World champion's advantage. This crucial victory took him to 15 points, just half a point behind leader Wesley So, who narrowly defeated Magnus Carlsen in the Armageddon round. Praggnanandhaa's stunning final round win secured him the Norway Chess 2026 title. Meanwhile, Assaubayeva won the women's crown in the same tournament.

Exam angle Questions may focus on Praggnanandhaa's victory and key competitors in Norway Chess 2026.
PraggnanandhaaNorway Chess 2026GukeshWesley SoMagnus CarlsenAssaubayeva

Source The Hindu

Practice MCQs

Q1 Who won the Norway Chess 2026 title?

  • APraggnanandhaaCorrect
  • BWesley So
  • CMagnus Carlsen
  • DGukesh

Explanation Praggnanandhaa won the Norway Chess 2026 title after a stunning final round victory.

Q2 Which player did Praggnanandhaa defeat to secure his crucial win in Norway Chess 2026?

  • AWesley So
  • BMagnus Carlsen
  • CGukeshCorrect
  • DAssaubayeva

Explanation Praggnanandhaa defeated Gukesh to take a crucial win in the tournament.

Q3 Who won the women's crown at Norway Chess 2026?

  • AAssaubayevaCorrect
  • BPraggnanandhaa
  • CGukesh
  • DMagnus Carlsen

Explanation Assaubayeva won the women's crown at Norway Chess 2026.

India Begins Test Cricket Reset with One-Off Match Against Afghanistan

India is set to play a one-off Test match against Afghanistan, marking an important phase in India's quest to reset its Test cricket strategy. Head coach Gambhir has confirmed that Sai Sudharsan will be given an extended opportunity to bat at No. 3. Afghanistan's squad for the Test is missing some of its leading white-ball players, including the ace leg-spinner Rashid. This match holds significance beyond the game itself as India aims to rebuild and strengthen its Test team.

Exam angle Focus on India's strategic approach and player selections in the one-off Test against Afghanistan.
IndiaAfghanistanTest cricketSai SudharsanGautam GambhirRashid

Source The Hindu

Practice MCQs

Q1 Who has been confirmed by India’s head coach to bat at No. 3 in the one-off Test against Afghanistan?

  • ASai SudharsanCorrect
  • BRashid Khan
  • CGautam Gambhir
  • DVirat Kohli

Explanation Head coach Gambhir confirmed that Sai Sudharsan will be given a long rope at No. 3.

Q2 Which key Afghanistan player is missing from the Test squad against India?

  • ARashid KhanCorrect
  • BSai Sudharsan
  • CGautam Gambhir
  • DVirat Kohli

Explanation Afghanistan's squad is missing ace leg-spinner Rashid, a leading white-ball star.

Q3 What is the broader significance of the India vs Afghanistan one-off Test match?

  • AIndia’s quest to reset its Test cricket strategyCorrect
  • BAfghanistan’s first-ever Test match
  • CA bilateral ODI series
  • DA T20 World Cup qualifier

Explanation The match is important as India aims to rebuild and strengthen its Test team.

FIFA Bans Water Bottles at 2026 World Cup Venues to Enhance Safety

FIFA has prohibited fans from bringing water bottles, including refillable ones, into stadiums during the 2026 World Cup. The decision aims to prevent risks and injuries to players and attendees, as bottles could potentially be thrown inside the venues. This safety measure was announced ahead of the tournament to ensure a secure environment for all participants and spectators.

Exam angle Exam questions may focus on new safety regulations introduced by FIFA for the 2026 World Cup.
FIFA2026 World Cupwater bottlesstadiumsfansplayerssafety

Source The Hindu

Practice MCQs

Q1 Why has FIFA banned water bottles from the 2026 World Cup stadiums?

  • ATo promote environmental sustainability
  • BTo prevent risk and injury to players and attendeesCorrect
  • CTo reduce litter inside stadiums
  • DTo encourage fans to buy beverages inside venues

Explanation FIFA stated the ban was to prevent risk and injury since bottles could be thrown inside the stadiums.

Q2 What types of water bottles are prohibited by FIFA at the 2026 World Cup venues?

  • AOnly plastic water bottles
  • BOnly single-use water bottles
  • CAll water bottles including refillable onesCorrect
  • DOnly glass water bottles

Explanation FIFA prohibited all water bottles, including refillable ones, from being brought into stadiums.

Q3 Which of the following is a reason FIFA gave for banning water bottles at the World Cup?

  • ATo improve beverage sales inside stadiums
  • BTo prevent bottles from being thrown and causing injuriesCorrect
  • CTo comply with local environmental laws
  • DTo reduce the weight of items fans carry

Explanation FIFA's stated reason was to prevent bottles from being thrown, which could cause injuries.

Mirra Andreeva and Maja Chwalinska Set for French Open Final Showdown

At the French Open, 19-year-old Mirra Andreeva secured a 6-1, 6-3 semifinal victory over Marta Kostyuk, demonstrating improved composure compared to her earlier loss to Lois Boisson where she lost her temper. Meanwhile, 24-year-old Maja Chwalinska made history by becoming the first qualifier in the professional era to reach the Paris final after defeating Shnaider. The final will feature Andreeva's new calm against the surprise package Chwalinska.

Exam angle Questions may focus on the finalists of the French Open and notable records set during the tournament.
Mirra AndreevaMaja ChwalinskaFrench OpenLois BoissonMarta KostyukShnaiderParis

Source The Hindu

Practice MCQs

Q1 Who became the first qualifier in the professional era to reach the French Open final?

  • AMirra Andreeva
  • BMaja ChwalinskaCorrect
  • CLois Boisson
  • DMarta Kostyuk

Explanation Maja Chwalinska became the first qualifier in the professional era to reach the Paris final.

Q2 Which player did Mirra Andreeva defeat to reach the French Open semifinals?

  • ALois Boisson
  • BMaja Chwalinska
  • CMarta KostyukCorrect
  • DShnaider

Explanation Mirra Andreeva sealed a 6-1, 6-3 semifinal win over Marta Kostyuk.

Q3 What issue affected Mirra Andreeva in her match against Lois Boisson?

  • AInjury during the match
  • BLost temper and received a warning for hitting the ball into the standsCorrect
  • CDisqualification for unsportsmanlike conduct
  • DRetired due to illness

Explanation Andreeva lost her temper and received a warning for angrily hitting a ball into the stands against Lois Boisson.

Science & Tech

LinkedIn Co-founder Reid Hoffman Steps Down from Microsoft Board to Focus on AI Startup

Reid Hoffman, co-founder of LinkedIn, has stepped down from Microsoft's board to concentrate on his AI drug-discovery startup, Manas. Hoffman co-founded Inflection AI in 2022 with Mustafa Suleyman to advance in the rapidly growing AI sector. His departure from Microsoft highlights a shift in tech leadership priorities towards AI innovation and drug discovery.

Exam angle Focus on leadership changes in major tech companies and emerging AI startups.
Reid HoffmanMicrosoftManasInflection AIMustafa SuleymanLinkedInAIdrug discovery

Source Livemint

Practice MCQs

Q1 Why did Reid Hoffman step down from Microsoft's board?

  • ATo focus on his AI drug-discovery startup ManasCorrect
  • BTo start a new social media platform
  • CTo retire from the tech industry
  • DTo join another tech company's board

Explanation Reid Hoffman stepped down from Microsoft's board to focus on Manas, his AI drug-discovery startup.

Q2 Who co-founded Inflection AI alongside Reid Hoffman?

  • ASatya Nadella
  • BMustafa SuleymanCorrect
  • CElon Musk
  • DSundar Pichai

Explanation Reid Hoffman co-founded Inflection AI with Mustafa Suleyman in 2022.

Q3 What sector is Reid Hoffman's startup Manas focused on?

  • ASocial media
  • BE-commerce
  • CAI drug discoveryCorrect
  • DCloud computing

Explanation Manas is an AI drug-discovery startup.

NASA Orders and Later Reverses Evacuation Alert on ISS Due to Air Leak

On June 5, 2026, NASA ordered astronauts aboard the International Space Station (ISS) to take shelter due to a widening air leak, a precaution taken out of an abundance of caution. The evacuation alert lasted nearly two hours before NASA lifted the order, allowing astronauts to resume normal operations. Meanwhile, engineers from NASA and Russia's space agency, Roscosmos, continued to evaluate and attempt to fix the air leak aboard the ISS.

Exam angle Questions may focus on recent safety measures and international cooperation aboard the ISS.
NASAInternational Space StationRoscosmosair leakastronauts

Source Livemint

Practice MCQs

Q1 Why did NASA order astronauts aboard the ISS to take shelter on June 5, 2026?

  • ADue to a widening air leak aboard the ISSCorrect
  • BBecause of a solar flare warning
  • CTo conduct a routine safety drill
  • DDue to a fire outbreak on the ISS

Explanation NASA ordered astronauts to take shelter because of a widening air leak aboard the International Space Station.

Q2 How long did the evacuation alert on the ISS last before NASA lifted it?

  • ANearly two hoursCorrect
  • BAbout 30 minutes
  • CMore than five hours
  • DOne full day

Explanation The precautionary evacuation alert lasted for nearly two hours before NASA allowed astronauts to return to normal operations.

Q3 Which agencies were involved in evaluating and fixing the air leak on the ISS?

  • ANASA and RoscosmosCorrect
  • BNASA and ESA
  • CRoscosmos and JAXA
  • DNASA and ISRO

Explanation Engineers from NASA and Russia's space agency, Roscosmos, continued evaluating and attempting to fix the air leak.

Environment

Kaziranga National Park Records 30 Raptor and Six Stork Species

A rapid survey conducted in February-March this year at Kaziranga National Park recorded 217 individual raptors across 30 species, including buzzards, eagles, falcons, owls, and vultures. Additionally, 266 individual storks belonging to six species were documented during the survey.

Exam angle Details about biodiversity surveys and species recorded at Kaziranga National Park are relevant for environment and wildlife-related questions.
Kaziranga National Parkraptorsstorksbuzzardseaglesfalconsowlsvultures

Source The Hindu

Practice MCQs

Q1 How many raptor species were recorded during the recent survey at Kaziranga National Park?

  • A30Correct
  • B6
  • C217
  • D266

Explanation The survey recorded 217 individual raptors across 30 species.

Q2 During the February-March survey, how many individual storks were recorded at Kaziranga National Park?

  • A30
  • B6
  • C217
  • D266Correct

Explanation The survey recorded 266 individual storks across six species.

Q3 Which of the following bird types were included in the raptor species recorded at Kaziranga National Park?

  • ABuzzards, eagles, falcons, owls, vulturesCorrect
  • BParrots, pigeons, crows, sparrows
  • CPeacocks, pheasants, quails
  • DFlamingos, pelicans, ducks

Explanation The raptor species recorded included buzzards, eagles, falcons, owls, and vultures.

National

Over 4,600 Indians Deported from US in Last 17 Months: MEA

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) reported that more than 4,600 Indians were deported from the United States to India in the last 17 months. Specifically, 3,567 Indians were deported in 2025 alone, and over 1,000 Indians have been deported in 2026 so far. MEA spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal provided these figures, highlighting the ongoing trend of deportations from the US to India during this period.

Exam angle Statistics on Indian deportees from the US highlight migration and bilateral issues relevant for current affairs.
Ministry of External AffairsMEAUnited StatesIndiaRandhir Jaiswaldeportation20252026

Source The Hindu

Practice MCQs

Q1 According to the Ministry of External Affairs, how many Indians were deported from the US in the last 17 months?

  • AMore than 4,600Correct
  • BExactly 3,567
  • CMore than 1,000
  • DLess than 3,000

Explanation The MEA stated that more than 4,600 Indians were deported from the US in the last 17 months.

Q2 How many Indians were deported from the US to India in 2025, as per MEA spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal?

  • A3,567Correct
  • B1,000
  • C4,600
  • D2,500

Explanation Randhir Jaiswal said that 3,567 Indians were deported from the US in 2025.

Q3 Which official provided the data on Indian deportees from the US?

  • ARandhir JaiswalCorrect
  • BExternal Affairs Minister
  • CUS Immigration Officer
  • DIndian Ambassador to US

Explanation MEA spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal provided the deportation figures.

Delhi Police Register FIR After CBSE Reports Cyber Attacks on Post-Result Portal

The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) reported coordinated cyber attacks on its Post-Result Services Portal. Despite these attacks, CBSE's systems remained secure due to effective mitigation by cybersecurity teams. Following the complaint, Delhi Police's cyber unit has registered a First Information Report (FIR) and is investigating the incident. The cyber attacks caused delays in the portal's functioning but did not compromise the security of the system.

Exam angle Questions may focus on recent cyber security incidents involving educational boards and law enforcement responses.
CBSEDelhi Policecyber attacksPost-Result Services Portalcybersecurity teams

Source Livemint

Practice MCQs

Q1 Which organization reported coordinated cyber attacks on its Post-Result Services Portal in 2026?

  • ACBSECorrect
  • BUPSC
  • CNTA
  • DAICTE

Explanation CBSE reported coordinated cyber attacks on its Post-Result Services Portal.

Q2 What was the response of Delhi Police after CBSE reported the cyber attacks?

  • AThey registered an FIR and started an investigationCorrect
  • BThey ignored the complaint
  • CThey took over the portal management
  • DThey arrested the attackers immediately

Explanation Delhi Police's cyber unit registered an FIR and began investigating the matter after CBSE's complaint.

Q3 What was the outcome of the cyber attacks on CBSE's Post-Result Services Portal?

  • ASystems remained secure and attacks were mitigatedCorrect
  • BData was leaked extensively
  • CPortal was permanently shut down
  • DResults were declared early

Explanation Despite the attacks, CBSE's systems remained secure and the attacks were successfully mitigated.

Congress Questions ED and CBI Over Rajesh Exports Irregularities

Congress media and publicity department chairman Pawan Khera criticized the Enforcement Directorate (ED) and Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) for failing to raise red flags regarding alleged irregularities in Rajesh Exports. The findings revealed discrepancies in the reported revenues amounting to ₹15.15 lakh crore and highlighted significant weaknesses in the government's regulatory oversight mechanisms.

Exam angle Questions may focus on the role of investigative agencies and regulatory oversight in financial irregularities involving major companies.
CongressPawan KheraRajesh ExportsEnforcement DirectorateCentral Bureau of Investigation₹15.15 lakh croreregulatory oversight

Source The Hindu

Practice MCQs

Q1 Who criticized the ED and CBI for failing to detect irregularities in Rajesh Exports?

  • APawan KheraCorrect
  • BNarendra Modi
  • CAmit Shah
  • DRahul Gandhi

Explanation Pawan Khera, Congress media and publicity department chairman, criticized the ED and CBI.

Q2 What was the reported revenue amount involved in the alleged irregularities of Rajesh Exports?

  • A₹15.15 lakh croreCorrect
  • B₹10 lakh crore
  • C₹20 lakh crore
  • D₹5 lakh crore

Explanation The findings exposed irregularities in reported revenues of ₹15.15 lakh crore.

Q3 What did the findings about Rajesh Exports expose besides irregularities in revenue?

  • AWeaknesses in government regulatory oversightCorrect
  • BCorruption in judiciary
  • CIssues in foreign trade policy
  • DFailures in banking sector

Explanation The findings exposed serious weaknesses in the government’s regulatory oversight.

Two Sudanese Nationals Isolated at Gandhi Hospital in Hyderabad Amid Ebola Testing

In early June 2026, two Sudanese nationals were isolated at Gandhi Hospital in Hyderabad after developing fever symptoms. The first individual was detected at Hyderabad airport and shifted to the hospital for precautionary testing due to travel history and symptoms, although not classified as a suspected Ebola patient. Subsequently, a second Sudanese national was also isolated after developing fever, and samples from both individuals were sent for Ebola testing by health authorities.

Exam angle Details about the isolation and testing of Sudanese nationals in Hyderabad amid Ebola concerns are relevant for questions on public health responses to infectious diseases in India.
Sudanese nationalsGandhi HospitalHyderabadEbola testingHyderabad airporthealth authorities

Source The Hindu

Practice MCQs

Q1 Where were the two Sudanese nationals isolated after developing fever symptoms in June 2026?

  • AGandhi Hospital, HyderabadCorrect
  • BAIIMS, Delhi
  • CApollo Hospital, Chennai
  • DKEM Hospital, Mumbai

Explanation Both Sudanese nationals were isolated at Gandhi Hospital in Hyderabad as per the reports.

Q2 What was the reason for testing the Sudanese nationals for Ebola?

  • AThey were confirmed Ebola patients
  • BPrecautionary testing due to travel history and symptomsCorrect
  • CThey requested the test
  • DRoutine airport screening for all passengers

Explanation Health authorities clarified that the testing was precautionary owing to their travel history and symptoms, not because they were confirmed Ebola patients.

Q3 What action was taken when the first Sudanese national was detected with fever at Hyderabad airport?

  • AAllowed to proceed after screening
  • BShifted to Gandhi Hospital for precautionary testingCorrect
  • CQuarantined at the airport
  • DSent back to Sudan immediately

Explanation The first Sudanese national was shifted to Gandhi Hospital for precautionary testing after being detected with fever at Hyderabad airport.

Praveen Chakravarty Files Nomination for Rajya Sabha Byelection Amid Alliance Dispute

Congress leader Praveen Chakravarty filed his nomination for the Rajya Sabha byelection, accompanied by Tamil Nadu Chief Minister C. Joseph Vijay, some Ministers, and former Union Finance Minister P. Chidambaram. The Congress nominated Chakravarty for the Rajya Sabha seat allotted to it by its post-Assembly poll ally, the TVK. However, Chakravarty's claim on social media that he had the support of all alliance parties of the TVK was objected to by CPI(M) and CPI, who disputed his assertion of party backing.

Exam angle Questions may focus on recent Rajya Sabha nominations and alliance dynamics in Tamil Nadu politics.
Praveen ChakravartyCongressRajya SabhaTVKCPI(M)CPIC. Joseph VijayP. Chidambaram

Source The Hindu

Practice MCQs

Q1 Who accompanied Praveen Chakravarty when he filed his nomination for the Rajya Sabha byelection?

  • AChief Minister C. Joseph Vijay and former Union Finance Minister P. ChidambaramCorrect
  • BOnly Congress party workers
  • CLeaders from CPI(M) and CPI
  • DNo one accompanied him

Explanation Praveen Chakravarty was accompanied by Chief Minister C. Joseph Vijay, some Ministers, and former Union Finance Minister P. Chidambaram when he filed his nomination.

Q2 What was the objection raised by CPI(M) and CPI regarding Praveen Chakravarty's Rajya Sabha nomination?

  • AThey objected to his nomination itself
  • BThey objected to his claim of having support from all alliance parties of the TVKCorrect
  • CThey supported his claim fully
  • DThey objected to the nomination process

Explanation CPI(M) and CPI objected to Chakravarty's claim on social media that he had the support of all alliance parties of the TVK.

Q3 Which party allotted the Rajya Sabha seat to Congress for nominating Praveen Chakravarty?

  • ACPI(M)
  • BCPI
  • CTVKCorrect
  • DDMK

Explanation The Rajya Sabha seat was allotted to Congress by its post-Assembly poll ally, the TVK.

Economy

India and US to Execute First Tranche of Bilateral Trade Agreement by Mid-July

After three days of productive negotiations in New Delhi, Indian Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal announced that India and the United States are moving quickly to close remaining issues and may execute the first tranche of their bilateral trade agreement by mid-July 2026.

Exam angle Focus on the timeline and significance of the India-US bilateral trade agreement execution.
IndiaUnited StatesPiyush Goyalbilateral trade agreementNew Delhi

Source Livemint

Practice MCQs

Q1 When did Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal say India and the US could execute the first tranche of their bilateral trade agreement?

  • ABy mid-July 2026Correct
  • BBy the end of 2026
  • CBy mid-June 2026
  • DBy early August 2026

Explanation Piyush Goyal stated that the first tranche of the bilateral trade agreement could be executed by mid-July 2026.

Q2 Where were the three days of productive negotiations between India and the US held?

  • ANew DelhiCorrect
  • BWashington D.C.
  • CMumbai
  • DNew York

Explanation The negotiations took place in New Delhi, as mentioned by Piyush Goyal.

Q3 Who is the Indian official mentioned as announcing progress on the India-US trade deal?

  • APiyush GoyalCorrect
  • BNarendra Modi
  • CRajnath Singh
  • DNirmala Sitharaman

Explanation Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal announced the progress on the India-US bilateral trade agreement.

Government exempts capital gains tax on FPI investment in government securities

The Government of India has exempted capital gains tax on Foreign Portfolio Investor (FPI) investments in government securities (G-Secs). Additionally, the government announced that 15, 30, and 40-year tenor bonds will be included under the Fully Accessible Route (FAR) framework. This framework permits non-residents to invest in specified government securities without any quantitative restrictions, thereby encouraging greater foreign investment in long-term government bonds.

Exam angle Focus on recent government policy changes affecting foreign investment in government securities and tax exemptions.
Government of IndiaForeign Portfolio Investorsgovernment securitiescapital gains taxFully Accessible Route15-year bonds30-year bonds40-year bonds

Source The Hindu

Practice MCQs

Q1 What recent tax exemption did the Government of India announce for Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs)?

  • AExemption from capital gains tax on investment in government securitiesCorrect
  • BExemption from dividend distribution tax
  • CExemption from income tax on interest income
  • DExemption from securities transaction tax

Explanation The government exempted capital gains tax on FPI investments in government securities.

Q2 Which new bond tenors were added to the Fully Accessible Route (FAR) framework for non-resident investments?

  • A5, 10, and 15-year bonds
  • B10, 20, and 30-year bonds
  • C15, 30, and 40-year bondsCorrect
  • D20, 25, and 35-year bonds

Explanation The government included 15, 30, and 40-year tenor bonds under the FAR framework.

Q3 What is the significance of the Fully Accessible Route (FAR) framework for non-resident investors?

  • AAllows investment in government securities with quantitative restrictions
  • BAllows investment in specified government securities without quantitative restrictionsCorrect
  • CRestricts investment in government securities to short-term bonds
  • DProhibits investment in government securities

Explanation FAR allows non-residents to invest in specified government securities without any quantitative restrictions.

RBI Governor Malhotra States Indian Economy on Strong Footing

RBI Governor Malhotra stated that the Indian economy is currently on a strong footing and is in a far better condition. However, he expressed concern about the duration of the ongoing conflict and the time required for the restoration of the supply chain, which worries the Reserve Bank of India the most.

Exam angle Focus on RBI Governor Malhotra's assessment of the Indian economy and key concerns for economic stability.
RBIMalhotraIndian economysupply chainconflict

Source The Hindu

Practice MCQs

Q1 According to RBI Governor Malhotra, what is the current condition of the Indian economy?

  • AOn strong footing and far better conditionCorrect
  • BFacing severe recession
  • CIn a fragile state due to inflation
  • DExperiencing rapid decline

Explanation RBI Governor Malhotra stated that the Indian economy is on strong footing and in a far better condition.

Q2 What does RBI Governor Malhotra identify as the biggest worry for the Reserve Bank of India?

  • ADuration of the conflict and time for supply chain restorationCorrect
  • BRising inflation rates
  • CDeclining foreign investments
  • DHigh unemployment rates

Explanation He mentioned that the biggest worry is the duration of the conflict and the time it would take for the restoration of the supply chain.

Sensex and Nifty Marginally Rise Ahead of RBI Monetary Policy Decision

On June 4, 2026, the Indian stock markets showed marginal gains ahead of the Reserve Bank of India's monetary policy decision. The Sensex increased by 13.84 points (0.02%) to close at 74,360.01, while the Nifty rose by 10.95 points (0.05%) to end at 23,416.55. Among the Sensex-30 companies, Infosys, Bajaj Finserv, UltraTech Cement, HCL Tech, and Adani Ports were noted as laggards on that day.

Exam angle Questions may focus on recent stock market trends and key companies' performance ahead of RBI policy announcements.
SensexNiftyRBIInfosysBajaj FinservUltraTech CementHCL TechAdani Ports

Source The Hindu

Practice MCQs

Q1 What was the approximate closing value of the Sensex on June 4, 2026?

  • A74,360.01Correct
  • B23,416.55
  • C74,346.17
  • D23,405.60

Explanation The Sensex closed at 74,360.01 on June 4, 2026, as per the reported data.

Q2 Which of the following companies was NOT listed among the laggards on June 4, 2026?

  • AInfosys
  • BBajaj Finserv
  • CReliance IndustriesCorrect
  • DAdani Ports

Explanation Infosys, Bajaj Finserv, UltraTech Cement, HCL Tech, and Adani Ports were mentioned as laggards; Reliance Industries was not listed.

Q3 What was the market trend on June 4, 2026, ahead of the RBI monetary policy decision?

  • AStock markets ended flat
  • BStock markets declined sharply
  • CStock markets showed marginal gainsCorrect
  • DStock markets closed at record highs

Explanation The stock markets showed marginal gains with Sensex and Nifty rising slightly ahead of the RBI monetary policy decision.

International

Iran Links US Peace Deal to Release of $24 Billion in Frozen Assets

On June 6, 2026, Iran stated that a peace deal with the United States depends on the release of $24 billion in frozen assets. Iran reportedly demands the immediate release of $12 billion following the signing of an interim agreement, with the remaining $12 billion to be released at a later stage. Additionally, Iran warned against any renewed conflict, emphasizing the importance of this financial arrangement for peace negotiations.

Exam angle Focus on Iran's conditions for a US peace deal and the financial demands involved.
IranUnited Statespeace dealfrozen assetsinterim agreement

Source Livemint

Practice MCQs

Q1 What condition did Iran set for a peace deal with the United States in June 2026?

  • ARelease of $24 billion in frozen assetsCorrect
  • BWithdrawal of US troops from the Middle East
  • CLifting of all economic sanctions immediately
  • DSigning of a cultural exchange agreement

Explanation Iran stated that the peace deal hinges on the release of $24 billion in frozen assets.

Q2 How does Iran propose the $24 billion in frozen assets be released according to the June 2026 report?

  • AAll $24 billion released immediately after the agreement
  • B$12 billion immediately after the interim agreement and $12 billion laterCorrect
  • CHalf the amount after one year and the rest after two years
  • DOnly after complete peace is established

Explanation Iran reportedly seeks $12 billion immediately after signing an interim agreement, with the remaining $12 billion to follow later.

Q3 What warning did Iran issue alongside its demand for frozen assets in June 2026?

  • AAgainst renewed conflictCorrect
  • BAgainst further economic sanctions
  • CAgainst diplomatic isolation
  • DAgainst interference in its nuclear program

Explanation Iran warned against renewed conflict while linking the peace deal to the release of frozen assets.

Frequently asked questions

What are the key current affairs of June 6, 2026?
22 items spanning Sports, National, Economy. Each item carries a short summary, an exam-relevance note, and 2 to 3 MCQs you can practise immediately.
Which exams is this digest tailored for?
TNPSC, SSC (CGL, CHSL), Banking (IBPS, SBI), RRB and GATE General Awareness sections. The exam-relevance line under each item highlights the most likely question angle.
Is Tamil Nadu news covered in this digest?
Yes — this digest includes 2 Tamil Nadu items aimed at TNPSC aspirants, alongside national coverage.

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