Daily Current Affairs 11 June 2026
Daily current affairs for 11 June 2026 — 20 verified news items across Science & Tech, International, National & more, with exam-angle notes, keywords and…
In this digest · 20 items
Science & Tech
Microsoft's Xbox to Implement Major Layoffs Amid Sales Challenges
Microsoft's Xbox division is planning major layoffs next month, marking the first significant restructuring under gaming unit CEO Asha Sharma. The decision comes as Xbox faces mounting challenges due to declining console sales and a shortage of blockbuster titles. Microsoft's strategy focusing on subscriptions and cloud gaming has not sufficiently compensated for these declines, increasing pressure on the gaming unit.
Source Livemint
Practice MCQs
Q1 What is the main reason behind Microsoft's Xbox planning major layoffs next month?
- ADeclining console sales and shortage of blockbuster titlesCorrect
- BExpansion of cloud gaming services
- CIncrease in subscription revenue
- DLaunch of new Xbox consoles
Explanation The layoffs are due to declining console sales and a shortage of blockbuster titles, as stated in the sources.
Q2 Who is the CEO of Microsoft's gaming unit overseeing the first major restructuring?
- ASatya Nadella
- BAsha SharmaCorrect
- CPhil Spencer
- DSarah Bond
Explanation Asha Sharma is the CEO of the gaming unit under whom the first major restructuring is planned.
Q3 Which strategy of Microsoft failed to offset the declining Xbox console sales?
- AIncreasing hardware production
- BSubscriptions and cloud gamingCorrect
- CLaunching new game studios
- DExpanding physical retail stores
Explanation Microsoft's bet on subscriptions and cloud gaming failed to offset declining console sales.
International
Canada Proposes Ban on Social Media Accounts for Children Under 16
Canada has introduced legislation aimed at prohibiting children under the age of 16 from possessing social media accounts. This move is part of a growing global effort to enhance safety protections for minors online. Alongside this, the bill also includes provisions to regulate AI chatbots, reflecting concerns about emerging technologies and their impact on younger users.
Source The Hindu
Practice MCQs
Q1 What is the main objective of the new Canadian legislation introduced in 2026 regarding social media?
- ATo ban social media accounts for children under 16Correct
- BTo promote social media use among children under 16
- CTo ban all social media platforms in Canada
- DTo increase social media advertising to children
Explanation The legislation aims to bar children younger than 16 from possessing social media accounts.
Q2 Besides banning social media accounts for children under 16, what else does the Canadian bill propose to regulate?
- AOnline gaming platforms
- BAI chatbotsCorrect
- CE-commerce websites
- DCryptocurrency exchanges
Explanation The bill includes provisions to regulate AI chatbots.
Q3 The Canadian legislation to ban social media accounts for children under 16 is part of what broader trend?
- AA global effort to tighten safety protections for minors onlineCorrect
- BAn initiative to promote digital literacy among adults
- CA campaign to increase social media usage worldwide
- DA movement to ban all internet usage for children
Explanation Canada's move joins a growing global effort to tighten safety protections for children online.
WHO Revises Ebola Risk Assessment: Congo Under 'Very High' Risk
On June 11, 2026, the World Health Organization (WHO) revised its Ebola risk assessment, declaring the Democratic Republic of the Congo under a 'very high' risk due to a significant rise in confirmed Ebola cases. The WHO issued a red alert for Congo, highlighting the severity of the outbreak. The update also raised questions about the presence of Ebola cases in India, though no confirmed cases were reported there.
Source Livemint
Practice MCQs
Q1 What risk level did WHO assign to the Democratic Republic of the Congo for Ebola in June 2026?
- ALow risk
- BModerate risk
- CHigh risk
- DVery high riskCorrect
Explanation WHO revised the Ebola risk assessment to 'very high' risk for the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
Q2 What action did WHO take regarding the Ebola outbreak in Congo?
- AIssued a yellow alert
- BIssued a red alertCorrect
- CDeclared the outbreak over
- DNo action taken
Explanation WHO issued a red alert for the Democratic Republic of the Congo due to the Ebola outbreak.
Q3 According to the WHO update, does India have confirmed Ebola cases as of June 2026?
- AYes, many cases
- BYes, a few cases
- CNo confirmed casesCorrect
- DInformation not available
Explanation The update raised questions about India but did not report any confirmed Ebola cases there.
Pentagon Awards Microsoft $9.7 Billion Deal to Cut Costs and End License Sprawl
The Pentagon has awarded Microsoft a $9.7 billion deal known as the Core Enterprise Technology Agreement. This deal aims to reduce costs and eliminate license sprawl by consolidating multiple Pentagon software contracts that were up for renewal simultaneously. The agreement does not represent new spending but is a strategic move to streamline software licensing across the Department of Defense.
Source The Hindu
Practice MCQs
Q1 What is the value of the deal awarded by the Pentagon to Microsoft?
- A$9.7 billionCorrect
- B$7.9 billion
- C$97 billion
- D$1 billion
Explanation The Pentagon awarded Microsoft a $9.7 billion deal as stated in the source.
Q2 What is the main purpose of the Core Enterprise Technology Agreement between the Pentagon and Microsoft?
- ATo increase Pentagon's software spending
- BTo cut costs and end license sprawlCorrect
- CTo develop new software for the Pentagon
- DTo outsource Pentagon's IT services
Explanation The deal aims to cut costs and end license sprawl by consolidating software contracts.
Q3 Does the $9.7 billion deal represent new spending by the Pentagon?
- AYes, it is new spending
- BNo, it is not new spendingCorrect
- COnly partially new spending
- DThe source does not specify
Explanation The deal is not new spending but a renewal of existing software contracts.
National
Supreme Court to Hear Meenakshi Natarajan's Plea on RS Nomination Rejection
Meenakshi Natarajan, a Congress candidate from Madhya Pradesh, moved the Supreme Court challenging the rejection of her Rajya Sabha nomination. A ten-member Congress delegation met the Election Commission in New Delhi regarding this issue. The Supreme Court declined to grant interim relief to prevent the declaration of the election result, noting that courts usually do not interfere once the election process is underway. The hearing of her plea is scheduled for June 12, 2026.
Source The Hindu
Practice MCQs
Q1 What action did Meenakshi Natarajan take regarding her Rajya Sabha nomination rejection?
- AMoved the Supreme Court challenging the rejectionCorrect
- BWithdrew her nomination voluntarily
- CAccepted the Election Commission's decision
- DFiled a petition in the High Court
Explanation Meenakshi Natarajan moved the Supreme Court challenging the rejection of her Rajya Sabha nomination.
Q2 What was the Supreme Court's stance on granting interim relief to Meenakshi Natarajan?
- AGranted interim relief to stop election result declaration
- BDeclined interim relief, citing non-interference during election processCorrect
- CPostponed the hearing indefinitely
- DDirected the Election Commission to reconsider
Explanation The Supreme Court declined to grant interim relief, observing that courts ordinarily do not interfere once the election process is underway.
Q3 When is the Supreme Court scheduled to hear Meenakshi Natarajan's plea?
- AJune 10, 2026
- BJune 11, 2026
- CJune 12, 2026Correct
- DJune 15, 2026
Explanation The Supreme Court is scheduled to hear the plea on June 12, 2026.
Narendra Modi Becomes India's Longest-Serving Elected Prime Minister
On June 10, 2026, Prime Minister Narendra Modi became India's longest-serving continuously elected Prime Minister, marking 12 years in office. The National Democratic Alliance (NDA) leaders in Delhi praised Modi's leadership and adopted a resolution highlighting the government's achievements during his tenure. US President Donald Trump congratulated Modi, describing him as a strong, healthy, and wise man, and wished him continued greatness and success. On this historic occasion, prayers were offered for Modi's health at the Jhandewalan Devi temple.
Source Livemint
Practice MCQs
Q1 What milestone did Narendra Modi achieve in June 2026?
- ABecame India's longest-serving continuously elected Prime MinisterCorrect
- BWon his first general election
- CResigned from the Prime Minister post
- DBecame the President of India
Explanation Narendra Modi became India's longest-serving continuously elected Prime Minister in June 2026, completing 12 years in office.
Q2 Which international leader congratulated Narendra Modi on his milestone?
- AJoe Biden
- BDonald TrumpCorrect
- CEmmanuel Macron
- DBoris Johnson
Explanation US President Donald Trump congratulated Narendra Modi, calling him a strong, healthy, and wise man.
Q3 What action was taken by NDA leaders to honor Modi's achievement?
- AAdopted a resolution highlighting government achievementsCorrect
- BOrganized a national holiday
- CAnnounced a new election
- DLaunched a new political party
Explanation NDA leaders adopted a resolution praising Modi's leadership and highlighting the government's achievements over the past 12 years.
Air India denies pressuring families of Ahmedabad crash victims on compensation
Following the Ahmedabad plane crash that claimed the life of former Gujarat Chief Minister Vijay Rupani, Air India stated that there is no pressure on the victims' families to accept compensation. This comes after Rupani's daughter accused the airline of arm-twisting families to waive their legal rights while accepting interim compensation. Air India clarified that families are not being forced to accept the final payout, emphasizing voluntary acceptance of compensation.
Source The Hindu
Practice MCQs
Q1 What did Air India state regarding compensation for families of Ahmedabad plane crash victims?
- AFamilies are pressured to accept compensation immediately
- BNo pressure is being exerted on families to accept compensationCorrect
- CFamilies must waive legal rights to receive compensation
- DCompensation is only given after legal proceedings
Explanation Air India clarified that there is no pressure on families to accept compensation.
Q2 Who accused Air India of arm-twisting families to waive legal rights?
- AFormer Gujarat Chief Minister Vijay Rupani
- BThe daughter of Vijay RupaniCorrect
- CAir India spokesperson
- DAhmedabad airport authorities
Explanation The daughter of Vijay Rupani accused Air India of arm-twisting families.
Q3 What event led to the compensation discussions involving Air India?
- AAhmedabad plane crashCorrect
- BMumbai train accident
- CDelhi bus fire
- DChennai flood relief
Explanation The Ahmedabad plane crash was the event leading to compensation discussions.
Rahul Gandhi Meets Abhishek Banerjee Amid INDIA Bloc Coordination Push
On June 8, the INDIA bloc convened and emphasized the need for enhanced coordination and unity among its partners. Following this, Congress president Mallikarjun Kharge scheduled a meeting of his party colleagues for June 11. Amid these developments, Rahul Gandhi met with Abhishek Banerjee in Delhi, highlighting efforts to strengthen collaboration within the INDIA bloc during a period of internal challenges for the Trinamool Congress.
Source The Hindu
Practice MCQs
Q1 What was the main purpose of Rahul Gandhi's meeting with Abhishek Banerjee in June 2026?
- ATo discuss the INDIA bloc's coordination and unityCorrect
- BTo plan a new election campaign
- CTo announce a new party alliance
- DTo resolve a financial dispute
Explanation Rahul Gandhi met Abhishek Banerjee amid a push for better coordination and unity within the INDIA bloc.
Q2 Who called for a meeting of Congress party colleagues on June 11, 2026?
- ARahul Gandhi
- BMallikarjun KhargeCorrect
- CAbhishek Banerjee
- DMamata Banerjee
Explanation Congress president Mallikarjun Kharge called for a meeting of his party colleagues on June 11.
Q3 When did the INDIA bloc meet to discuss coordination among partners?
- AJune 8, 2026Correct
- BJune 10, 2026
- CJune 11, 2026
- DJune 9, 2026
Explanation The INDIA bloc met on June 8, 2026, and leaders called for better coordination and unity among partners.
Court Orders Restitution of ₹9,420.57 Crore to Justice Lodha Committee in PACL Case
A court has ordered the restitution of assets worth ₹9,420.57 crore to the Justice Lodha Committee in the PACL case. The Enforcement Directorate (ED) is investigating the case based on a complaint registered by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) against PACL Ltd. and its promoters for allegedly defrauding lakhs of investors. So far, the ED has attached assets worth nearly ₹28,626 crore in India and Australia as part of the probe.
Source The Hindu
Practice MCQs
Q1 What amount of assets did the court order to be restituted to the Justice Lodha Committee in the PACL case?
- A₹9,420.57 croreCorrect
- B₹28,626 crore
- C₹15,000 crore
- D₹5,000 crore
Explanation The court ordered restitution of assets worth ₹9,420.57 crore to the Justice Lodha Committee in the PACL case.
Q2 Which agencies are involved in the investigation of the PACL case?
- AEnforcement Directorate and Central Bureau of InvestigationCorrect
- BIncome Tax Department and Reserve Bank of India
- CSecurities and Exchange Board of India and ED
- DCBI and National Investigation Agency
Explanation The ED probe is based on a case registered by the CBI against PACL Ltd. and its promoters.
Q3 In which countries have assets been attached by the ED in the PACL case?
- AIndia and AustraliaCorrect
- BIndia and USA
- CIndia and UK
- DIndia and Canada
Explanation The ED has attached assets worth nearly ₹28,626 crore in India and Australia.
ED provisionally attaches ₹100 crore assets in Jaypee Infratech case
The Enforcement Directorate (ED) has provisionally attached assets worth ₹100 crore in connection with the Jaypee Infratech and Jaiprakash Associates case. The ED stated that Jaypee Infratech Limited (JIL) and Jaiprakash Associates Limited (JAL) collected about ₹32,825 crore from homebuyers. However, a substantial portion of these funds was diverted and siphoned off to related entities, prompting the investigation and asset attachment.
Source The Hindu
Practice MCQs
Q1 What amount of assets did the Enforcement Directorate provisionally attach in the Jaypee Infratech-Jaiprakash Associates case?
- A₹50 crore
- B₹100 croreCorrect
- C₹200 crore
- D₹500 crore
Explanation The ED provisionally attached assets worth ₹100 crore in the case.
Q2 How much money was collected by Jaypee Infratech Limited and Jaiprakash Associates Limited from homebuyers?
- A₹10,000 crore
- B₹20,500 crore
- C₹32,825 croreCorrect
- D₹50,000 crore
Explanation JIL and JAL collected about ₹32,825 crore from homebuyers.
Q3 According to the ED, what happened to a substantial amount of the funds collected by JIL and JAL?
- AInvested in new projects
- BReturned to homebuyers
- CDiverted and siphoned off to related entitiesCorrect
- DUsed for employee salaries
Explanation A substantial amount of the funds was diverted and siphoned off to related entities.
West Bengal's New Industries Minister Prioritizes Tata Group's Return
West Bengal's newly appointed Industries Minister, Tapas Roy, announced that the government's priority will be to bring back the Tata Group in a significant way. The minister emphasized creating an industry-friendly environment, ensuring ease of doing business, and generating employment opportunities for the youth of the state.
Source The Hindu
Practice MCQs
Q1 What is the priority of West Bengal's new Industries Minister Tapas Roy?
- ATo bring back the Tata Group in a big wayCorrect
- BTo increase agricultural production
- CTo reduce taxes on small businesses
- DTo promote tourism in West Bengal
Explanation Tapas Roy stated that the priority is to bring back the Tata Group in a significant way.
Q2 Which of the following is NOT a focus area mentioned by West Bengal's Industries Minister?
- ACreating an industry-friendly environment
- BEnsuring ease of doing business
- CGenerating employment for youth
- DIncreasing export dutiesCorrect
Explanation The minister mentioned creating an industry-friendly environment, ease of doing business, and employment generation, but not increasing export duties.
Q3 Who is the new Industries Minister of West Bengal?
- ATapas RoyCorrect
- BMamata Banerjee
- CAmit Shah
- DSuvendu Adhikari
Explanation Tapas Roy is the newly appointed Industries Minister of West Bengal.
Government Schemes
Tamil Nadu to Shift Most Property Registration Process Online Within Six Months
Tamil Nadu's Minister for Commercial Taxes and Registration, D. Logesh Tamilselvan, announced that the state government plans to move most of the property registration process online within six months. After implementation, people will only need to visit the Sub-Registrar Office for the final authentication process, streamlining property registration and reducing physical visits.
Source The Hindu
Practice MCQs
Q1 What change did Tamil Nadu's Minister for Commercial Taxes and Registration announce regarding property registration?
- AMost of the property registration process will be moved online within six monthsCorrect
- BProperty registration will be completely abolished
- CPeople will no longer need any authentication for property registration
- DProperty registration will be centralized in the capital city
Explanation The minister stated that most of the property registration process will be moved online within six months.
Q2 After the online system is implemented, what will people still need to do for property registration in Tamil Nadu?
- AVisit the Sub-Registrar Office only for the final authentication processCorrect
- BSubmit physical documents at the Sub-Registrar Office
- CAttend a government seminar on property laws
- DNo physical visit will be required at all
Explanation People will have to visit the Sub-Registrar Office only for the final authentication process after the system is implemented.
Cabinet Approves Ahmedabad Metro Phase 2A and Amaravati Projects Worth ₹4,703 Crore
The Union Cabinet has approved the expansion of the Ahmedabad Metro with Phase 2A, involving an outlay of ₹2,169 crore. Additionally, projects in Amaravati, Andhra Pradesh, including new government office and housing complexes, have been sanctioned. The total investment for these projects amounts to ₹4,703 crore, aiming to enhance urban infrastructure in Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh.
Source Livemint
Practice MCQs
Q1 What is the approved budget for the Ahmedabad Metro Phase 2A project?
- A₹2,169 croreCorrect
- B₹4,703 crore
- C₹3,500 crore
- D₹1,000 crore
Explanation The Ahmedabad Metro Phase 2A has been approved with a budget of ₹2,169 crore as per the Cabinet decision.
Q2 Which state will benefit from new government office and housing complexes approved by the Cabinet?
- AAndhra PradeshCorrect
- BGujarat
- CTamil Nadu
- DMaharashtra
Explanation The new government office and housing complexes are planned for Amaravati in Andhra Pradesh.
Q3 What is the total outlay approved by the Cabinet for the Ahmedabad Metro expansion and Amaravati projects?
- A₹4,703 croreCorrect
- B₹2,169 crore
- C₹3,000 crore
- D₹5,000 crore
Explanation The combined projects have a total approved outlay of ₹4,703 crore.
Ministry Recommends Capping Number of Airports for Privatisation
The Ministry recommended capping the number of airports to be privatised. This recommendation was made last week in response to queries raised by government departments represented on the Public Private Partnership Appraisal Committee.
Source The Hindu
Practice MCQs
Q1 What did the Ministry recommend regarding airport privatisation?
- AIncreasing the number of airports for privatisation
- BCapping the number of airports for privatisationCorrect
- CPrivatising all airports without restrictions
- DDelaying the privatisation of airports
Explanation The Ministry recommended capping the number of airports for privatisation.
Q2 The Ministry's recommendation on airport privatisation was made in response to queries from which committee?
- AAirport Authority of India
- BPublic Private Partnership Appraisal CommitteeCorrect
- CFinance Commission
- DCivil Aviation Ministry
Explanation The recommendation was made in response to queries from government departments represented on the Public Private Partnership Appraisal Committee.
Q3 When was the Ministry's recommendation on capping airports for privatisation made?
- ALast month
- BLast weekCorrect
- CYesterday
- DLast year
Explanation The recommendation was made last week.
Economy
Centre exempts central excise duty on petrol blended with 22-30% ethanol
The Government of India has announced an exemption from central excise duty on petrol blended with ethanol at levels of 22%, 25%, 27%, and 30%. This move aims to promote the use of higher ethanol blended petrol, supporting cleaner fuel initiatives and reducing dependence on fossil fuels. The exemption covers petrol blends within the specified ethanol percentage range, encouraging increased ethanol blending in petrol.
Source The Hindu
Practice MCQs
Q1 What range of ethanol blending in petrol has been exempted from central excise duty by the Government of India?
- A10% to 20%
- B15% to 25%
- C22% to 30%Correct
- D30% to 40%
Explanation The government exempted central excise duty on petrol blended with ethanol at 22%, 25%, 27%, and 30%, which falls within the 22% to 30% range.
Q2 What is the main purpose of exempting central excise duty on higher ethanol blended petrol?
- ATo increase petrol prices
- BTo promote the use of cleaner fuelsCorrect
- CTo reduce ethanol production
- DTo discourage ethanol blending
Explanation The exemption aims to promote the use of higher ethanol blended petrol, supporting cleaner fuel initiatives.
Q3 Which of the following ethanol blend percentages in petrol is NOT covered under the excise duty exemption?
- A22%
- B25%
- C27%
- D20%Correct
Explanation The exemption applies to petrol blended with ethanol at 22%, 25%, 27%, and 30%, but not at 20%.
Urea Import Prices Halve in Latest National Fertilizers Ltd Tender
National Fertilizers Ltd (NFL) recently conducted a urea import tender where the landed price quotes ranged between $444.9 and $449.3 per tonne. This price is less than half compared to an earlier procurement that had bids ranging from $935 to $959 per tonne. The significant drop in urea import prices offers relief to the subsidy bill and benefits Indian farmers by potentially lowering fertilizer costs.
Source Livemint
Practice MCQs
Q1 What was the range of landed price quotes per tonne in the latest National Fertilizers Ltd urea import tender?
- A$444.9 to $449.3Correct
- B$935 to $959
- C$500 to $550
- D$700 to $750
Explanation The latest tender received quotes in the range of $444.9 to $449.3 per tonne, which is less than half the previous levels.
Q2 How did the latest urea import tender prices compare to the earlier procurement by National Fertilizers Ltd?
- AThey were more than double
- BThey were less than halfCorrect
- CThey remained the same
- DThey increased slightly
Explanation The latest prices were less than half the levels seen in the earlier procurement, which had bids of $935–959 per tonne.
Q3 What is one major benefit of the urea price drop in the latest NFL tender?
- AIncrease in fertilizer export
- BRelief to the subsidy billCorrect
- CRise in urea production costs
- DHigher prices for farmers
Explanation The significant drop in urea import prices offers relief to the subsidy bill and benefits Indian farmers.
Parliamentary Panel Seeks Stakeholder Views on Corporate Laws Amendment Bill
The Parliamentary Joint Committee (JPC) on the Corporate Laws (Amendment) Bill, introduced in March 2026, is inviting comments from stakeholders until June 22. The bill proposes comprehensive amendments to the Companies Act, 2013, and the Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) Act, 2008, aiming to update and tweak existing corporate regulations.
Source The Hindu
Practice MCQs
Q1 What is the deadline for stakeholders to submit their views on the Corporate Laws (Amendment) Bill?
- AJune 15
- BJune 22Correct
- CJuly 1
- DJune 30
Explanation The Parliamentary Joint Committee is soliciting comments from stakeholders until June 22.
Q2 Which Acts are proposed to be amended by the Corporate Laws (Amendment) Bill introduced in March 2026?
- ACompanies Act, 2013 and LLP Act, 2008Correct
- BCompanies Act, 1956 and LLP Act, 2010
- CCompanies Act, 2013 and Partnership Act, 1932
- DLLP Act, 2008 and Partnership Act, 1932
Explanation The bill proposes comprehensive amendments to both the Companies Act, 2013, and the Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) Act, 2008.
Q3 Which parliamentary body is seeking views on the Corporate Laws (Amendment) Bill?
- AStanding Committee on Finance
- BParliamentary Joint Committee (JPC)Correct
- CPublic Accounts Committee
- DCommittee on Public Undertakings
Explanation The Parliamentary Joint Committee (JPC) on Corporate Laws is soliciting comments on the bill.
22 More Applicants Approved Under PLI Scheme for Textiles
The government has approved 22 additional applicants under the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for textiles. These companies are expected to generate a projected turnover of ₹15,561.34 crore in notified textile products. The scheme will also create approximately 36,217 employment opportunities across the textile value chain, boosting the sector's growth and employment potential.
Source The Hindu
Practice MCQs
Q1 How many more applicants were approved under the PLI scheme for textiles as per the recent announcement?
- A15
- B22Correct
- C30
- D36
Explanation The government approved 22 more applicants under the PLI scheme for textiles.
Q2 What is the projected turnover from the companies approved under the PLI scheme for textiles?
- A₹10,000 crore
- B₹15,561.34 croreCorrect
- C₹20,000 crore
- D₹25,000 crore
Explanation The approved companies are expected to generate a projected turnover of ₹15,561.34 crore.
Q3 Approximately how many employment opportunities will be created across the textile value chain due to the new approvals under the PLI scheme?
- A25,000
- B30,000
- C36,217Correct
- D40,000
Explanation The scheme will create around 36,217 employment opportunities across the textile value chain.
Sports
India-born Nikhil Chaudhary Added to Australia's T20 Squad After Six Decades
Nikhil Chaudhary, born in India, has been added to Australia's T20 cricket squad, marking the first time in six decades that an India-born player has been selected. The selection panel was impressed by his performance in the Big Bash League (BBL), especially during the last season. Selector Tony Dodemaide highlighted Chaudhary's BBL form as a key reason for his inclusion in the squad.
Source The Hindu
Practice MCQs
Q1 Who is the India-born cricketer recently added to Australia's T20 squad?
- ANikhil ChaudharyCorrect
- BVirat Kohli
- CSteve Smith
- DDavid Warner
Explanation Nikhil Chaudhary, born in India, was added to Australia's T20 squad, as stated in the source.
Q2 What was a key factor in Nikhil Chaudhary's selection to Australia's T20 squad?
- AHis performance in the Big Bash LeagueCorrect
- BHis Test match centuries
- CHis IPL performance
- DHis coaching experience
Explanation Selector Tony Dodemaide mentioned that Chaudhary's impressive Big Bash League form, especially last season, led to his addition.
Q3 How long had it been since an India-born player was selected for Australia's T20 squad before Nikhil Chaudhary?
- ASix decadesCorrect
- BTen years
- COne decade
- DTwenty years
Explanation The source states that Nikhil Chaudhary is the first India-born player in six decades to be added to Australia's T20 squad.
Brazilian Referee Wilton Sampaio to Officiate FIFA World Cup 2026 Opener
Brazilian referee Wilton Sampaio will officiate the opening match of the FIFA World Cup 2026, supported by his compatriots Bruno Pires and Bruno Boschilia as assistant referees. The tournament also highlights top football talents, including the top five defenders and forwards to watch, though specific names are not detailed here.
Source The Hindu
Practice MCQs
Q1 Who will officiate the opening match of the FIFA World Cup 2026?
- AWilton SampaioCorrect
- BBruno Pires
- CBruno Boschilia
- DLionel Messi
Explanation Wilton Sampaio, a Brazilian referee, is appointed to take charge of the FIFA World Cup 2026 opener.
Q2 Which country do the referee and his assistants for the FIFA World Cup 2026 opener represent?
- ABrazilCorrect
- BArgentina
- CFrance
- DGermany
Explanation The referee Wilton Sampaio and his assistants Bruno Pires and Bruno Boschilia are all from Brazil.
Q3 Which of the following roles will Bruno Pires and Bruno Boschilia have in the FIFA World Cup 2026 opener?
- AAssistant refereesCorrect
- BMain referee
- CPlayers
- DCoaches
Explanation Bruno Pires and Bruno Boschilia will serve as assistant referees alongside Wilton Sampaio.
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